Why a Flat Frequency Response ?

I recently moved house. This fact meant my home made speakers built on principles advocated by Royd and now NVA wouldn't fit in the new smaller listening room.  So I purchased as a stop gap a pair of wharfedale dimond 10.3 floorstanders {80% discount at richer sounds ] There were dire 'So I modified them in accordance with royd/nva principles and a few other recommendations. These were:

  • removed xover on bass driver
  • mass damped the cabinet [steel plate]
  • single capacitor and resistor on treble
  • Bass driver directly wired to speaker cable/amp
  • treble negative directly wired to amp , resistor/capacitor on positive terminal.
  • no padding or damping whatsoever .
  • permanently sealed the bass port making them infinite baffle .
  • Doping bass/mid cone with rubber spray .

Now the wharfedales were designed by PJ Comeau , yet my modifications made the originals sound shut in , congested and with the rhythm of David Brent . I much , ,much prefer the sound , so much so they have stayed longer than expected . This leads me to my question .

The speakers will now not have a flat frequency response . I can find no real reason why it should have an anaechoically measured flat frequency response . So gentlemen why is a flat frequency response considered desirable and what am I missing ?

If you can help then please click HERE