I recently moved house. This fact meant my home made speakers built on principles advocated by Royd and now NVA wouldn't fit in the new smaller listening room. So I purchased as a stop gap a pair of wharfedale dimond 10.3 floorstanders {80% discount at richer sounds ] There were dire 'So I modified them in accordance with royd/nva principles and a few other recommendations. These were:
- removed xover on bass driver
- mass damped the cabinet [steel plate]
- single capacitor and resistor on treble
- Bass driver directly wired to speaker cable/amp
- treble negative directly wired to amp , resistor/capacitor on positive terminal.
- no padding or damping whatsoever .
- permanently sealed the bass port making them infinite baffle .
- Doping bass/mid cone with rubber spray .
Now the wharfedales were designed by PJ Comeau , yet my modifications made the originals sound shut in , congested and with the rhythm of David Brent . I much , ,much prefer the sound , so much so they have stayed longer than expected . This leads me to my question .
The speakers will now not have a flat frequency response . I can find no real reason why it should have an anaechoically measured flat frequency response . So gentlemen why is a flat frequency response considered desirable and what am I missing ?
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